2. Why does Kant have an A version focusing on the subjective faculties such as intuition, imagination, and understanding, followed by a B version that focuses on objective ideas about why concepts must apply to objects? Why is there such a sudden switch and how does it intrinsically change his ideology?
3. As a transcendental idealist that believes appearances are the grounds for the possibility of experience, is Kant an empirical realist (concepts precede experience) as a result of these beliefs?
4. I have transcendental deduction defined as "the explanation of the way in which concepts can relate to objects apriori" in my notebook, but what does this "explanation" actually consist of?
5. Secondly, I don't understand how we could possibly have a priori knowledge of objects, as children don't we learn through experience that things are hot, sharp, etc. If we had apriori knowledge of the concepts of these objects wouldn't we, as humans, implicitly know things without experiencing them?
1 comment:
As for number 5, anything described as a priori is something that is universal and necessary, no something that we previously know. The point of an a priori concept is not to know it before experience, but to recognize it through experience while simultaneously letting it shape our view of it. For example, time and space frame our interactions with objects, yet we can't define time and space before we have the experience of learning about them. I hope that helped.
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