1. Why do space and time possess transcendental ideality?
2. If a concept is not immediately related to an object, how is it still related to the object’s representation?
3. Why does Kant make the distinction between affirmative judgments versus infinite judgments? I’m not quite sure I understand the difference.
4. Why is affinity a necessary consequence of the synthesis in imagination?
5. How can the understanding both be a faculty of rules and the source of the laws of nature?
Wednesday, March 3, 2010
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1 comment:
1. I think that space and time possess transcendental ideality because they do not rest on empirical intuition, but on a priori intuition. They are necessary conditions to all experience. Space and time cannot be transcendentally real because we can’t actually ever know what space and time are in themselves; there is no way that we can know such infinite things.
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